Patriot Master Gunner (PMG) Module C Practice Test

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• How can the original ATO be identified?
• What order implements the Airspace control plan that provides a detail of the approved requests for ACM?
• Which document is used to isolate the BN system based on Status Monitor operations and operator-observed faults?
• Splash reports are sent immediately; which option matches this timing?
• Which air defense zone is established around an airbase and limited to the engagement envelope of short-range air defense weapons systems defending that base?
• In the STO preamble, which item is listed first?
• What is the order that directs AMD units to posture their system IAW enemy and friendly situation?
• Which WP reference when observing the fault indicator panel and is required to correct fault indications?
• Which zone is the base defense zone established around an airbase to defend against threats?
• What is the Built-in-Test (BITE)?
• Which airspace is described as a high-density airspace control zone, with concentrated employment of numerous weapons and airspace users?
• Which line is associated with COORDINATING ALTITUDE?
• Which software is used to fault isolate the FP system equipment based on Status Monitor operations and operator-observed faults?
• AS0 corresponds to Moving/Transition?
• What is the airspace of defined dimensions within which multiple air defense systems (surface-to-air missiles and aircraft) are simultaneously employed to engage air threats?
• What is the purpose of the Airspace Control Measures Activation Form?
• Which description corresponds to the WCS state 'tight'?
• Which description best captures the meaning of the double slash '//' in USMTF notation?
• Which zone is defined as a low-altitude missile engagement zone?
• FPSM tasks address both short-term and long-term fault detection and fault assessment.
• What time period does an ATO cover?
• A system hang/crash affects which function of the computer?
• SPINS stands for?
• Which statement best describes Identification Matrix execution authority?
• Which term denotes a Short-Range Air Defense Engagement Zone in the material?
• Which set presents data with fields aligned under column headers?
• Which system monitors tactical ECS, RS, and LS operations and captures MCS data?
• What does the Hold weapons control status mean?
• The DTG example uses which time reference?
• The Unique ID in Field 3 of the MSGID identifies what?
• Which category of response can be performed online while the unit operates?
• TCA is also responsible for what?
• Which range corresponds to the code LOMEZ?
• What is an air defense zone established for the protection of key assets or facilities, other than air bases, where weapon systems may be fired at any target not positively recognized as friendly?
• System initialization failure with FP recovery TSD occurs during which event?
• Which item is NOT typically included in the ATO's basic information?
• Which of the following is an example of a BITE indicator fault?
• Which range corresponds to the code HIDACZ?
• What is the abbreviation for the Airspace Control Order?
• BDZ corresponds to which range?
• How are ACOs numbered?
• BULLSEYE refers to what?
• What does the Tight weapons control status mean?
• What is the role of the TCAs regarding equipment control?
• INOP stands for what in ETRO context?
• Which code corresponds to the range 400H-449H?
• How is USMTF described in terms of readability and processability?
• What is employed in order to minimize the impact of intermittent faults on operator activity, particularly during higher alert states?
• A temporary bi-directional corridor that facilitates the low-level passage of friendly aircraft through friendly air defenses and controlled or restricted airspaces
• What is the airspace of defined dimensions within which the responsibility for engagement of air threats normally rests with short-range air defense weapons and may be established within a low- or high-altitude missile engagement zone?
• What is the goal of the Status Monitor Handbook?
• Which data element is contained in Line 1 of the STO structure?
• WP that covers obvious faults, such as tripped circuit breakers, cheated interlocks, or visual indications during fault isolation?
• In TM 9-1425-2602-12-4, which chapter provides the MCS OPERATOR ADJUSTMENT PROCEDURES menu?
• Which line contains the IFFON/IFFOFF, IFPID, PIDON, FSCL group?
• Which zone is established to protect key assets or facilities other than air bases, where weapon systems may be fired at any target not positively recognized as friendly?
• The STO preamble contains which items?
• Line 3B defines which concept?
• FP Fault isolation is used to perform what?
• Which airspace designation is used for a defined purpose and may be designated where flight activity is prohibited?
• When are engagement reports submitted immediately?
• What S/I do TCAs have enabled?
• What applies to all fires of air, land, and sea-based weapons systems using any type of ammunition?
• In the fault data tab, which indicator would signal the MAPSYS issue?
• What is used to report the system's condition and unit's ability to conduct the ABT/TBM mission?
• Which MIL-STD update version is listed in conjunction with MIL-STD-6040?
• What is the airspace of defined dimensions within which the responsibility for engagement of air threats normally rests with a particular weapon system?
• What are the three elements included in the ATO?
• What is a procedural method to separate fixed and rotary-winged aircraft, designating an altitude above which fixed-wing aircraft will normally fly and below which rotary-wing aircraft will normally fly?
• Which airspace is defined as a joint engagement zone where multiple air defense systems engage air threats?
• What is the airspace designated in an airspace control plan or airspace control order in which there is a concentrated employment of numerous and varied weapons and airspace users?
• Line 2 of the STO structure contains which element?
• Which two terms are presented as zone designations in the material?
• In volume creation, what do Origin volumes denote?
• Which WP will you reference when Tactical alert messages are presented?
• What is a Route established below the coordination level to facilitate the movement of Army aviation assets; it is normally located in the corps through brigade rear areas of operation and does not require approval by the airspace control authority?
• In this context, what does the term "kill chain" refer to?
• Which option correctly pairs an acronym with its full form?
• In a Foundation Target Set, what does i) specify?
• Under high-alert state, if a repair can be deferred and the unit continues to operate, which decision is appropriate?
• What marks the start of each field in USMTF notation?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of a BITE indicator fault?
• Which line label is associated with the concept COORDINATING ALTITUDE in the material?
• What is the frequency for SAMSTATREPs?
• Which code corresponds to the range F350H-F399H?
• TBM report content includes which elements?
• Which category of response can be deferred; the unit continues to operate as is with no decision required?
• What are lines established relative to the fire support coordination line (FSCL) for guidance in the use of IFF/SIF interrogation by friendly air defenses?
• What are the three weapons control statuses?
• Which statement best describes the fault indicator table in relation to red indicator light decisions?
• What is the airspace known as the airspace of defined dimensions within which responsibility rests with low-to-medium-altitude surface-to-air missiles?
• Which resource is used to guide decisions when encountering a red indicator light?
• Which code corresponds to the range H150H/T/F-H199H/T/F?
• Which option describes excessive clutter targets after clutter map generation?
• Line 3 contains which element?
• What faults are affected by EQUIP CONTR S/I?
• Which range corresponds to the code ROA?
• What is a multipurpose line when auto IFF is enabled, tracks beyond the IFPID will not be automatically interrogated?
• What feature is used to minimize the impact of intermittent faults on operator activity during higher alert states?
• What is the frequency of TBM reports?
• What is a device that emits a signal positively identifying it as a friendly?
• What does 'Decision Required' imply?
• Line 3A describes Identification Authority (IDA). What does IDA specify?
• Which MIL-STD reference is associated with USMTF in the material?
• What does 'Fight, Fix Later' imply about repairs?
• Monitor tasks include maintaining a set of status information on each FP in BN, obtained by which source?
• Threat ADW for specific air breathing threats; which abbreviation corresponds to fixed wings?
• What is the term for the indicator that terminates a set in USMTF?
• Which are the equipment assessment tabs that may be called up?
• What is a temporary corridor of defined dimensions recommended for use by high-speed, fixed-wing aircraft that presents the minimum known hazards to low-flying aircraft transiting the combat zone?
• What is the Remarks section used for?
• What is the stated purpose of USMTF in the material?
• What important information are you identifying on the TBM report?
• Which set provides the capability to include explanatory, unformatted information in a formatted message?
• What is the airspace of defined dimensions within which the responsibility for engagement of air threats normally rests with high altitude surface-to-surface missiles?
• What is the frequency requirement for the Airspace Control Officer (ACO) updates?
• ZULU time refers to which standard time?
• What operational fault is responsible for causing system hangs or crashes and affecting the operation of the computer and its ability to present alerts and displays?
• What term defines airspace for a specific purpose and may also be a designated airspace in which no flight activity is authorized by a general subdivision such as regions, sectors and AOA?
• What does ACP stand for?
• The engagement authority may differ for different threats. Which option best reflects this?
• ATO taskings are which of the following?
• What does 'hold' mean in Weapons Control Status?
• What form is used to provide specific detailed orders for airspace management from a higher command to subordinate units?
• Who is responsible for monitoring, evaluating and engaging targets, monitoring status of FP equipment and controlling equipment?
• Which code corresponds to the range H300H-H349H?
• Which information covers status and Built-In Test Equipment words, operator adjustments, TWUD, and the MCS diagnostic sequence?
• Which item is included as minimum information in the Splash report?
• ABMLs differ in their intensity based on the criteria?
• Which document provides guidelines for appropriate operational decisions and standard field reporting decisions?
• Which code corresponds to the range F450H-F499H?
• TFT stands for?
• Which Patriot alert state corresponds to ABT Search (SM1-3)?
• The ACP establishes procedures for which system in the operational area?
• Persistent faults are reported on both consoles when which condition is satisfied?
• Which of the following indicates a system hang fault?
• Which set has a group of fields that provides an ordered arrangement of data aligned vertically under a horizontal array of column headers?
• In what instance will the fault condition alert display RS degraded or RS No Go and after how long after the condition has persisted?
• Which range corresponds to the code SAAFR?
• Which triggers the System Maintenance Technician to report to the ECS?
• System initialization failure with FP initialization TSD occurs during which event?
• Scenarios will be made up of which two components?
• Under high-alert state, if the repair can be performed online while the unit operates, which decision is appropriate?
• In the Fault DATA code list, what does the letter I represent?
• Which range corresponds to the code JEZ?
• What is the primary aim of the Status Monitor Handbook in high alert state?
• AS7 corresponds to which status?
• What is the Airspace known as a restricted operation's zone and is created in response to specific operational situations and normally restricted?
• Which set provides explanatory, unformatted information in a formatted message?
• Engagement reports are submitted to which unit?
• Routine fault reporting uses the computer display and computer display interface to report status changes detected through status monitor process through what?
• FTS stands for?
• Which information category contains status, Built-In Test Equipment words, operator adjustments, TWUD, and the MCS diagnostic sequence?
• What is the frequency of ABT reports?
• When both consoles have EQUIP CONTR enabled what is displayed?
• TBM data print occurs approximately after initial detection by which system?
• Which of the following actions affect the Fix or Fight decision?
• Under high-alert state, if the repair must be completed before the unit resumes operation, which decision is appropriate?
• Which order is used to provide specific detailed orders for airspace management and control from higher command to subordinate units?
• Effective DTG should include which time reference?
• What is in Field 5 of the MSGID?
• Which range corresponds to the code AIR CORRIDOR?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between ATO and ACO?
• Besides SHORADEZ and WEZ, which other zone designation appears in the material?
• When are Splash reports sent?
• Who is the originator of TBM reports?
• New originator STO starts back at what?
• Who is the designated commander responsible for operating the airspace control system in the airspace control area?
• What are the four free text set formats?
• What Software User Guide provides maintenance information on operator adjustments, TWUD, and BITE words?
• Which of the following actions are performed by the System Maintenance Technician?
• When one console has EQUIP CONTR enabled what is displayed?
• In the case of the filter condition being satisfied, which component reports faults on both consoles?
• What data is contained to assist the operator/maintainer in analyzing Status Monitor data gathered during the AMD mission for tactical impact and in decision-making?
• Page ___ of Tab ___ allows the operator ON/OFF control of hard copy printouts for TBM Events and TBM Launch Point Determinations.
• Which category of response is the extent of the unit's degradation and must be weighed against mission needs?
• Which statement best reflects USMTF's purpose as described?
• Tab entry failure during initialization occurs during which phase?
• Which system is tasked with remote maintenance support and capturing MCS data?
• Which term defines the airspace where the engagement authority rests with a specific weapon system?
• Which of the following is a TD action?
• ABML 8 is Netted.
• The line that contains the "kill chain" authorities is which line in the STO data structure?
• AS6 corresponds to which concept?
• Which term denotes the airspace where engagement decisions may involve engaging any target not positively identified as friendly?
• When both consoles have EQUIP CONTR off, what is displayed?
• How much time is allotted for engagement reports and to whom are they submitted?
• What does ACA stand for in airspace control?
• Which set has one or more fields presented in a horizontal arrangement?
• Which area is a restricted operations area created in response to specific operational situations?
• Which lines govern when IFF/SIF interrogations are to be used by friendly air defenses?
• What does the Free weapons control status mean?
• What is used as the reference line from which aircraft will be evaluated for correlation in corridors?
• Which term refers to a restricted air route of travel specified for use by friendly aircraft to prevent friendly fire?
• In TM 9-1425-2602-12-4, which chapter lists all status and BITE words?
• Which time stamp is the sample DTG given?
• Which term describes safe passage air corridors as a type of volume in airspace management?
• OP stands for what in ETRO context?
• Which of the following is an influence affecting the Fix or Fight decision?
• Which of the following lists the three types of alerts that appear?
• ABML 8 Netted — what is the status?
• Which range corresponds to the code HIMEZ?
• Under which condition does the RS degraded or RS No Go fault condition alert appear?
• Which WP corresponds to the Fault Indicator Index used to correct fault indications?
• Under high-alert state, what factor must be weighed against mission needs?
• In the Fault DATA codes, what does the symbol G represent?
• All tactical reports are managed by who?
• The set that describes pre-defined bullseye reference points and their frequencies is called?
• Which search mode is CM/ABT/TBM - self defense?
• Fault indications are results of what, and are identified by what?
• Which faults are addressed under WP 8202?
• What is emissions control authority?
• Which set is a simple flat list of fields in a single row?
• Which item is provided in TM 9-1425-2602-12-4 index chapter 14?
• Which document is referenced as a source for the 'Fix or fight synopsis'?
• In TM 9-1425-2602-12-4, which chapter describes MCS and TWUD diagnostic problems with a brief description of each test?
• Fault indications are brought to the operator's attention by which indications?
• Field 5 of the MSGID contains what?
• After attempting to recover by reloading the system software and attempts fail, the system is?
• Which code corresponds to the range F50H-F99H?
• FP faults can occur anytime during __ of the Patriot missile system?
• What is an alert message?
• Under what condition will the RS degraded or RS No Go fault condition alert appear and after how long after the condition has persisted?
• In OH designation, which missiles are included as examples?
• Which is the method used to task and disseminate to components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies projected sorties to targets and specific missions, and normally provides instructions including call signs, targets, and controlling?
• An air defense warning uses color codes to indicate degree of air raid probability. Which color means attack by hostile aircraft or missiles is imminent or in progress?
• Which maintenance information category provides status data that interfaces with diagnostic processes and appears only when registered as a fault?
• OH stands for what in ETRO context?
• Which code corresponds to the range F250H-F299H?
• Which source provides the status information used by FP monitor tasks?
• STOs are started sequentially with what?
• What does the FP Status tab provide?
• Which statement describes the organization or standard associated with USMTF’s joint interoperability support?
• ETROs are mandatory for units with system ___ conditions (reported with DTG).
• When is the STO issued?